Person-Centred Approaches in Adult Social Care Settings Essay

1.1. Define person-centred values Person-centred values: -treating people as individuals -supporting people to access their rights -supporting people to exercise choice -making sure people have privacy if they want it -supporting people to be as independent as possible -treating people with dignity and respect -recognising that working with people is a partnership rather than a relationship controlled by professionals Person-centred care has its focus on the person with an illness and not on the disease in the person. To achieve truly person-centred care we need to understand how the individual experiences his or her situation if we are to understand their behaviours and symptoms. This requires in-depth understanding of the individual’s life circumstances and preferences, combined with up-to-date evidence-based knowledge about individualised medical and social condition and treatment. 1.2. Explain why it is important to work in a way that embeds person-centred values Characterises a person-centred care: see more:support an individual in a way that promotes a sense of identity and self esteem see more:define person centred values †¢ Has its focus on the person with an illness and not the disease in the person. †¢ Has the person’s own experiences as its point of departure. †¢ Strives to understand behaviours and symptoms from the perspective of the person. †¢ Tailors care and treatment to each individual. †¢ Promotes both patient empowerment and shared decision making. †¢ Involves the patient as an active, collaborative partner. †¢ Strives to involve the person’s social network in his/her care. We believe that all individuals have the following person centred characteristics Freedom of Movement The right of residents to move to an area or place of their preference within legal limitations 2.1 Describe how to find out the history, preferences, wishes and needs of an individual Person-centred working means that the wishes of the person are the basis of planning and delivering support and  care services. Therefore, you must find out exactly what people want and expect from the care and support they are planning. Person-centred working means that service provision fits around the person-not the other way around. If you are going to work with someone, it is important that you know as much about them as possible.To find out about people history, preferences, wishes and needs the best way is always to ask them. They will tell you about their lives, needs and wishes. Some people have problems with communicating so you can always read their care plan, ask your colleagues or just talk to the family. 2.2. Describe how to take into account the history, preferences, wishes and needs of an individual when planning care and support. In my work role I: †¢ Provide Home Care to individuals, taking into account the history, preferences, wishes and needs of the individual and identified needs †¢ Provide Care including general counselling, personal hygiene and Meals tailored preferences, wishes and needs of the individual †¢ Take individuals to appointments and activities †¢ Assist with exercises, physiotherapy and other medical and care plans †¢ Monitor wellbeing and other physical conditions, as required †¢ Follow medical and care instructions carefully and consistently †¢ Organize time and resources based on the individual needs of clients †¢ Manage any unanticipated events or unstable situations †¢ Administer Care Plan in order to ensure that it is delivered in an appropriate, caring and respectful manner †¢ Ensure that care is provided according to all relevant policies, procedures and regulations †¢ Monitor supplies and resources †¢ Identify individual’s requiring more interventions and personal input †¢ Listen to the individual, take their views into consideration and make recommendations for changes and improvements to their care needs, as required †¢ Discuss any issues and concerns with individual and then pass on any relevant issues to the appropriate person †¢ Ensure that all care needs are identified †¢ Coordinate appropriate care and equipment including appropriate resource, as required †¢ Conduct and maintain a current, accurate, confidential client reporting system †¢ Provide information to other health care professionals, as required †¢ Consult with family members and other supports to ensure that care is on-going and that all client needs are identified and met †¢ Encourage clients and families to be involved in care, if appropriate †¢ Encourage clients and families to take responsibility for care, where and if appropriate †¢ Liaise with all family, medical and other resources, as required †¢ Advocate on behalf of clients for additional service and resources, as required †¢ Establish and maintain current, accurate, confidential files for each client †¢ Inform clients, families on what can be provided and when to access other resources †¢ Perform other related duties as required 2.3. Explain how using an individual’s care plan contributes in a person centred way Care Plans are the primary source of Patient information. Every specialty, PT/OT/Nursing etc. do an evaluation of the individual and formulate a program of goals for the patient to attain, therapies needed, schedule of goal levels, etc. Each person interacting with the patient can refer to the care plan for any information needed. Done properly, the care plan reflects a total person and how to best help them fulfil the goals. A care plan may be known by other names e.g. support plan, individual plan. It is the document where day to day requirements and preferences for care and support are detailed. Person centred thinking and planning is founded on the premise that genuine listening contains an implied promise to take action. PCP tools can be very powerful methods of focused listening, creative thinking and alliance building that have been shown both by experience and by research to make a significant impact in the lives of people who use human support services, when used imaginatively by people with a commitment to person-centeredness. Used well, with enthusiasm and commitment, these tools can be an excellent way of planning with people who might otherwise find it difficult to plan their lives, or who find that other people and services are planning their lives for them. 3.1. Define the term ‘consent’ Consent refers to the provision of approval or agreement, particularly and especially after thoughtful consideration. The question of consent is important in medical law. For example, a surgeon may be liable in trespass (battery) if they do not obtain consent for a procedure. There are exemptions, such as when the patient is unable to give consent. 3.2. Explain the importance of gaining consent when providing care and support the need for consent For one person to touch another without committing a criminal offence, he or she must have lawful justification. Consent is one such justification. This principle applies to medical treatment. Consent to a particular form of treatment allows that treatment to be given lawfully. Consent must usually be obtained before any treatment is given and can only be meaningful if a full explanation of the treatment has been given Consent can be either expressed or implied. For example, participation in a contact sport usually implies consent to contact by other participants, when contact is permitted by the rules of the sport. Express consent exists when verbal or written contractual agreement occurs. If a person signs a document stating that he or she is aware of the hazards of an activity, and that individual is then injured during that activity, the express consent given in advance may excuse another person who caused an injury to that person. How much information should I be given about the treatment? You should be given all the information you need to enable you to make a decision about giving consent to be treated. This includes what the treatment is, what it will achieve, any likely side effects, what will happen if the treatment is not given and what alternatives there are. Guidance issued to doctors says they should encourage you to ask questions and they should answer these fully. Can I be treated without giving consent to the treatment? Whether you are at home or in hospital, if you are an adult (aged 18 or over) and have the mental capacity needed to give consent to a form of medical treatment, you are generally entitled to refuse it and no undue pressure should be placed on you. However, the law does allow treatment to be given to an adult without consent where the adult lacks the mental capacity  needed to give consent and where certain sections of the Mental Health Act 1983 (MHA) apply – see Parts 2 and 3 of this guide for details. If you are experiencing mental distress and are offered treatment, you need to be aware of any legal powers that could be used if you refuse. However, the powers must not be used as threats to coerce you into consenting and if you feel this is happening, seek independent legal advice and consider making a complaint. Discuss any concerns you have about treatment with your doctor, making sure he or she knows what it is about the treatment you object to. You can always ask for a second opinion to discuss the treatment proposed. Your own GP can arrange this, or your consultant psychiatrist if you have one. If you are under 18, the law is complex and it is best to seek specialist legal advice. It may be that you can consent on your own behalf, but this does not necessarily mean you have the same right to refuse. Others, such as your parents, guardian, the local authority or the court, may be able to consent on your behalf. 3.3. Describe how to establish consent for an activity or action Every adult must be presumed to have the mental capacity to consent or refuse treatment, unless they are †¢ unable to take in or retain information provided about their treatment or care †¢ unable to understand the information provided †¢ unable to weigh up the information as part of the decision-making process. The assessment as to whether an adult lacks the capacity to consent or not is primarily down to the clinician providing the treatment or care, but carers have a responsibility to participate in discussions about this assessment. Carers have three over-riding professional responsibilities with regard to obtaining consent. †¢ To make the care of people their first concern and ensure they gain consent before they begin any treatment or care. †¢ Ensure that the process of establishing consent is rigorous, transparent and demonstrates a clear level of professional accountability. †¢ Accurately record all discussions and decisions relating to obtaining consent Valid consent must be given by a competent person (who may be a person lawfully appointed on behalf of the person) and must be given  voluntarily. Another person cannot give consent for an adult who has the capacity to consent. Exceptions to this are detailed below. Emergency situations An adult who becomes temporarily unable to consent due to, for example, being unconscious, may receive treatment necessary to preserve life. In such cases the law allows treatment to be provided without the person in the care of a nurse or midwife consent, as long as it is in the best interests of that person. Medical intervention considered being in the persons best interest, but which can be delayed until they can consent, should be carried out when consent can be given. Exceptions to this are where the person has issued an advanced directive detailing refusal of treatment. Obtaining consent Obtaining consent is a process rather than a one-off event. When a person is told about proposed treatment and care, it is important that the information is given in a sensitive and understandable way. The person should be given enough time to consider the information and the opportunity to ask questions if they wish to. Carers should not assume that the person in their care has sufficient knowledge, even about basic treatment, for them to make a choice. Forms of consent A person in the care of a nurse or midwife may demonstrate their consent in a number of ways. If they agree to treatment and care, they may do so verbally, in writing or by implying (by cooperating) that they agree. Equally they may withdraw or refuse consent in the same way. Verbal consent, or consent by implication, will be enough evidence in most cases. Written consent should be obtained if the treatment or care is risky, lengthy or complex. This written consent stands as a record that discussions have taken place and of the person’s choice. If a person refuses treatment, making a written record of this is just as important. A record of the discussions and decisions should be made. When consent is refused Legally, a competent adult can either give or refuse consent to treatment, even if that refusal may result in harm or death to him or herself. Carers  must respect their refusal just as much as they would their consent. It is important that the person is fully informed and, when necessary, other members of the health care team are involved. A record of refusal to consent, as with consent itself, must be made. The law and professional bodies recognise the power of advanced directives or living wills. These are documents made in advance of a particular condition arising and show the persons treatment choices, including the decision not to accept further treatment in certain circumstances. Although not necessarily legally binding, they can provide very useful information about the wishes of a person who is now unable to make a decision. 3.4.Explain what steps to take if consent cannot be readily established As a professional, you are personally accountable for actions and omissions in your practice and must always be able to justify your decisions. You must always act lawfully, whether those laws relate to your professional practice or personal life. 4.1. Define what is meant by active participation  Active participation is a way of working that recognises an individual’s right to participate in the activities and relationships of everyday life as independently as possible; the individual is regarded as an active partner in their own care or support, rather than a passive recipient. 4.2. Describe how active participation benefits an individual 1. Fulfil your desire to connect When you actively participate in a community, you experience your connection to other human beings. You share your ideas, bond with others who have similar interest, and get a sense that you are supported and accepted. Connecting with others deepens your sense of connection. Actively participating is a way to practice expressing your true Self and recognising that Self in someone else. 2. Build truer, deeper relationships When involved, are you there to â€Å"inform yourself,† or are you there to build relationships, or, foster relationships? As an active participant in an  ongoing group, or even a one time event, you give people the opportunity to interact with you. They get to know you and realise that you’re not just there for the contacts. It helps you to build trust. And trust leads to deeper, meaningful understanding of needs and requirements, relationships and friendships. 3. Establish yourself as an expert As an active participant, means that you are in the conversation. If the opportunity presents itself to share professional information, you are in the loop already. You’ll be involved and be part of or maker decisions that will aid your well-being and motivation to improve your life and your experiences. 4. Take ownership Participating in a group in the surest way to gain ownership. You become a stakeholder, your voice is heard. Better than that, you are in a position to do something to make the changes you want to see. You own a piece of the pie. 5. Managing life changes Active participants have involvement which is life changing and frees the individual up from some of the frustrations and angst that beset us all. It helps that others are involved and at the point of decision it is the individual who decides what is going to happen and how, within legal, moral and financial considerations 4.3. and 4.4. Describe ways of reducing barriers to active participation and describe ways of encouraging active participation Always treat people the way you would wish to be treated if you needed the same form of action or advice as you would in that circumstance. Earn individuals trust and respect by acting in a professional way. Set High standards for yourself and follow the established method and Procedures. Your attitude and actions affect how people feel about themselves. Everything about the carer sends signals and affects the way the individual feel and react to them; the way carers stand and move, their appearance and their demeanour Taking Steps to Break Down Barriers of Communication †¢ Openness †¢ Point out Discrepancies †¢ Facts †¢ Stay on Subject †¢ Be Specific / Example †¢ Key Words / Phrases †¢ Clarify †¢ Summarise †¢ Open Questions †¢ Treat As You Would †¢ Friendly Tone †¢ Body Language †¢ Time †¢ Interest †¢ Convey Warmth †¢ Empathy †¢ Respect, Listen, Non Judgemental †¢ Honesty Trustworthiness Reliability Truthfulness Dependability GUIDELINES FOR EFFECTIVE COMMUNICATIONS Communication must take place with employees at their level of understanding, using an appropriate manner, level and pace according to Individual abilities. †¢ Convey Warmth †¢ Show Respect with Active Listening and Without Passing Judgement †¢ Convey Empathy by Reflecting the Employee’s Feelings †¢ Show Interest †¢ Take Time to Listen †¢ Be Aware of Body Language †¢ Use a Friendly Tone †¢ Treat the Employee as you Would Wish to be Treated †¢ Ask Open Questions †¢ Summarise at Relevant Points in Your Own Words †¢ Clarify as Required †¢ Use Key Words or Phrases †¢ Be Specific, Ask for Specific Examples †¢ Do not Allow the Conversation to Go Off the Subject †¢ Stick to the Facts †¢ Point Out Discrepancies 5.1. Identify ways of supporting an individual to make informed choices Carer ethics concerns itself with activities in the field of care. Carers ethics have the principles of beneficence (The state or quality of being kind, charitable, or beneficial.), non-malfeasance (Not to have misconduct or wrongdoing) and respect for autonomy (The condition or quality of being autonomous; independence). It can be distinguished by its emphasis on relationships, human dignity and collaborative care. The concept of caring means that it tends to examine individual needs rather than ‘curing’ by exploring the relationship between the carer and the individual.   The progression of care has also shifted more towards the carer’s obligation to respect the human rights of the individual and this is reflected in the code of practice devised by the general social care council. Distinctive nature Generally, the focus of care is more on developing a relationship than concerns about broader principles, such as beneficence and justice. Carer’s seek a collaborative relationship with the individual in care. Themes that emphasises respect for the autonomy and dignity of the individual by promoting choice and control over their environment are commonly seen. This is in contrast to paternalistic practice where the health professional chooses what is in the best interests of the person from a perspective of wishing to cure them. Carers seek to defend the dignity of those in their care. It is because carers having a respect for people and their autonomous choices. People are then enabled to make decisions about their own treatment. Amongst other things this grounds the practice of informed choice that should be respected by the carer. The Principles of informed choice †¢ Services should be person centred in that they are flexible and responsive to need. †¢ Individuals continue to make a contribution to society and should be viewed as assets to society. †¢ Individuals want to live independently in their own homes or in a homely environment in their chosen community. †¢ Individuals want services that help them to help themselves. †¢ Individuals want local services to help them maintain their independence and safety in the community and promote good health.   Ã¢â‚¬ ¢ Services need to provided in a timely fashion as soon as possible once the need has been identified. †¢ Services will support informal care networks in terms of family, friends, and community. †¢ Individuals should be protected from harm, abuse, neglect and isolation. †¢ When they require treatment in an acute hospital setting they want: o the best quality treatment as close to home as possible a smooth transition of care between community services and hospital and between hospital and community services. to return home as soon as possible with appropriate support when required o access to rehabilitation services to maximise their level of independence †¢ Individuals want access to good quality information to enable them to make informed decisions about services they may need. †¢ Individuals want to retain control of decisions concerning their life and lifestyle. †¢ Admission to residential care will be made on the basis of positive and informed choice. These principles are consistent with the focus on Independence, Participation, Care, Self-fulfilment and Dignity. 5.3. Explain how agreed risk assessment processes are used to support the right to make choices Risk assessments are used in several different ways in order to deliver safe and effective services that have people at the centre. e.g. As you can see from the table above , risk assessments are carried out for various reasons, but they are always used in order to protect either the person using the services or the support worker, or both. Risk assessments should never be used as a reason to prevent people from making choices; they are there to protect and to ensure that risks are reduced. A good risk assessment allows people to make choices that are based on facts and on having the right information. It helps people to understand the consequences so that they are making informed choices. Managing risks and safeguarding ‘Giving people more choice and control inevitably raises questions about risk, both for individuals exercising choice over their care and support, and for public sector organisations who may have concerns about financial, legal or reputational risk.’ (‘Personalisation and support planning’, DH, 2010, para 133) ‘Personalisation and support planning’ indicates two aspects of risk that need to be addressed in practice: 1. Safeguarding, where staff will need to: †¢ implement the organisation’s procedures for safeguarding, including joint working agreements with partner agencies;   Ã¢â‚¬ ¢ work with other professionals and agencies to reduce risk and safeguard adults and carers; †¢ respond using the organisation’s procedures to signs and symptoms of possible harm, abuse and neglect; †¢ take appropriate action when there are serious safeguarding concerns, seeking advice from line managers and accessing specialist expertise; †¢ work with services when there is any indication of child safeguarding concerns. 2. Risk assessment and management, where staff will need to: †¢ implement the organisation’s procedures for risk assessment and management, including joint working agreements with partner agencies; †¢ use agreed approaches to the assessment and management of risks when working in situations of uncertainty and unpredictability; †¢ seek support when risks to be managed are outside own expertise; †¢ when necessary, work within the organisation’s procedures for managing media  interest in risk and safeguarding situations. 5.4. Explain why a worker’s personal views should not influence an individual’s choices Personal Beliefs and Care Practice 1. In good care practice, carers are advised that: 2.  Ã¢â‚¬ ¢ You must make the care of your individual client is your first concern you must treat your individual clients with respect, whatever their life choices and beliefs (paragraph 7). †¢ You must not unfairly discriminate against individual clients by allowing your personal views to affect adversely your professional relationship with them or the treatment you provide or arrange.

What is meant by unemployment and what are its different types? Essay

Unemployment cannot be simply defined as the number of people without jobs. Such a definition would include children who are too young to work, pensioners and housewives and others who choose not to take up paid up employment. Since these groups pose no serious economic problems. Unemployment in a country refers to all those people who are willing to work, but are unable to find a job. Moreover unemployment is a very complex phenomenon. It is rather easy to notice but difficult to define. Broadly, unemployment may mean lack of employment. Thus, anybody who fails to work may be considered as being unoccupied and therefore unemployed for the concerned period. Ordinarily, the term unemployment denotes a condition of joblessness. In the early 1980’s worldwide unemployment rose to very high levels, higher than during some of the year 1930s although not as high as the peak unemployment rates of that earlier ‘Great Depression’ whereby the overall level of unemployment as well as the structure of unemployment was extremely varied. (References Wikipedia.com) The measurement of unemployment is very important for any economy. Unemployment is one of the most serious economic problems and it is important for the government to know the level and the rate so that it can take appropriate corrective measures. Formula for calculating rate of unemployment: Unemployment Rate = Total number unemployed x 100 Labour Force Labour Force = Number of people employed + Number of people unemployed Unemployment rate in Mauritius The graph above shows the historical trend of unemployment. In year 2004 unemployment rate was high 10.8% then it decreased from 2005. As from 2008 to 2011 we can observe that the unemployment rate was stabilized at around 7%. Which shows good reforms campaign by the government despite the economic crisis which affected Mauritius in 2008. Types of Unemployment: There is a lot of confusion and disagreement regarding the meaning and nature of unemployment. So, to comprehend the problem in a proper way and suggest remedies, we may discuss the various types of unemployment. Unemployment thus may be discussed broadly under several heads: Seasonal unemployment Frictional unemployment Structural unemployment Cyclical unemployment Technological unemployment Disguised unemployment Seasonal Unemployment: According to Beveridge, â€Å"Seasonal unemployment means the unemployment arising in particular industries through seasonal variations in their activity brought about by climatic changes.† Seasonal unemployment occurs due to lack of productive work during certain periods of the year. Certain industries or occupations are seasonal in character.Take the case of ice-cream production, which has a peak demand during the summer. In the winter season, with a fall in the demand for ice-cream, the demand for labour engaged in its production also falls, and seasonal unemployment takes place.A sugar mill may be closed for a number of months in a year, as the supply of sugarcane stops. Seasonal unemployment may also be witnessed in the case of traditional and underdeveloped agriculture. For instance, in India, the cultivators tilling the unirrigated lands very often remain idle for 120 to 150 days in a year. Seasonal unemployment takes place mainly due to the lack of suitable alternative employment opportunities in the slack season. Such unemployment usually does not lead to serious distress, as the wages in seasonal occupations are comparatively higher, which provides for the period of unemployment. Solutions to Seasonal Unemployment Such unemployment can be reduced by encouraging people to take different jobs in the â€Å"off season†. Reduced unemployment benefits and improving the flow of information may also be beneficial. 2. Frictional Unemployment The term frictional unemployment refers to the unemployment that is associated with the normal turnover of labour. People leave jobs for many reasons and they take time to find new jobs; old persons leave the labour force and young person enter it, for example, school leavers but often new workers do not fill the jobs vacated by those who leave. Inevitably all of this movement takes time and give rise to a pool of persons who are frictionally unemployed while in the course of finding new jobs. This unemployment would occur even if the occupational, industrial and regional structure of unemployment were unchanging. When the welfare payments are more attractive than the work itself, some of the unemployed believe that the tax and the benefit system will reduce significantly the net increase in income from taking paid work and choose to be on the welfare instead. Causes of frictional unemployment: The relationship between workers and employers tends to be heterogeneous in some or the other way. This mismatch can lead to frictional unemployment, which makes it closely related to structural unemployment. Fresh graduates looking for a good job, but are not able to get it right away because of certain demands by the employers in terms of skills and experience, therefore resulting in frictional unemployment. Factors related to preference, work environment, skills, remuneration, location, work timings, etc., always rise a sense of dissatisfaction in the workers or employers. This is one of the main causes of frictional unemployment. Solutions to frictional unemployment The government can make the information about the labour market more readily available. Schools can provide more guidance about the jobs in the market and invite professionals to speak about their jobs so as to provide more information to the school leavers. The government can create some part time jobs as a solution to the unemployment. Proper educational advice to college students in terms of the job demands and skills required to get job faster. (Reference tutor2u.com) 3. Structural Unemployment Structural unemployment takes place because of a change or defect in the economic structure of a country. It occurs as a result of changes in demand and supply conditions for certain categories of labour. According to Beveridge, structural unemployment means â€Å"the unemployment arising in particular industries or localities through a change of demand so’ great that it may be regarded as affecting the main economic structure of a country.† There are some distinct similarities between frictional and structural unemployment, as both arise due to maladjustment between the demand for and supply of labour. However, there are certain important differences between the two. Frictional unemployment is of a shorter duration and takes place because of temporary factors. Hence although the demand for labour may decline in certain industries this fall in demand is counterbalanced by a rise in demand in some other industries. In case of structural unemployment, the deficiency in demand for labour is more permanent, extensive and deep rooted. The barriers to mobility are rather more formidable. According to Thomas D. Simpson structural unemployment is more heavily concentrated among certain employment and demographic groups. It affects a significant number of workers in certain occupations, industries, racial, and age groups, whereas frictional unemployment tends to occur more widely. Secondly, structural unemployment is less voluntary than frictional unemployment. Solutions to Structural Unemployment: The government can retrain the workers to meet the demand for a new set of skills. For example, farmers should learn the new techniques of production using automation rather than rely only on the traditional method of farming. Workers should improve their skills and reduce occupational immobility. Policies should provide the unemployed with skills they need in order to be re-deployed. In this era of information technology, workers should have IT knowledge to remain employed. Education and training opportunities should be made available to the workers so that they can get trained and improve their chances of taking on new jobs that are available in the economy. 4 Cyclical/ Keynesians unemployment/ deficient-demand unemployment Cyclical unemployment happens to be the most common type of unemployment in an industrially developed capitalist economy. According to the classical economists, in the long run there would be a full employment equilibrium. But in reality we find that a capitalist economy is characterised by alternate periods of prosperity and depression, rising economic activity and employment and sluggish business conditions and falling employment opportunities. Cyclical unemployment is also popularly known as Keynesian unemployment, following Keynes. Keynes has culled this type of unemployment as involuntary unemployment. Lerner has termed this unemployment during an economic depression as deflationary unemployment. Moreover, cyclical unemployment is when workers lose their jobs during downturns in the business cycle. It generally happens when the economy contracts, as measured by Gross Domestic Product (GDP). If the economy contracts for two quarters or more, then the economy is in a recession. Cyclical unemployment is usually the cause of high unemployment, when rates quickly grow to 8% or even 10% of the labor force. It’s known as cyclical because, when the economy re-enters the expansion phase of the business cycle, the unemployed will get rehired. Cyclical unemployment is temporary — although it could last anywhere from 18 months (the typical time frame of a recession) to ten years (during a depression). (Reference, Wikipedia) Cyclical unemployment through a diagram As we can see in the AD/AS diagram, the fall in AD to AD1 will result in a fall in the Real output (Y1).This will force the firms to reduce their output and hence reduce their workforce from ADL to ADL1. However, due to ‘wage stickiness’ it is less likely that real wages will fall (as seen in the labour diagram). Therefore, the wages instead of coming down to W1 will remain at We. This will create a surplus situation where the aggregate demand for labour will be at ‘a’ and the aggregate supply of labour will be ‘b’. (reference tutor4u.com) 5. Technological Unemployment. Technological unemployment takes place because of rapid technological improvements. Introduction of improved machinery and labour saving know-how has a tendency to displace labour force. Myrdal cites the example of technological unemployment in the American agricultural sector in the fifties, when due to the introduction of labour-saving techniques, the agricultural workers as part of the total civilian labour force declined from 12’6 to 8’5 per cent. Introduction of improved technology in production will lower the capital-output ratio and the labour-output ratio. This will increase the productivity of capital and labour, causing technological unemployment. Probably due to this reason, even now introduction of electronic computers has always been viewed with suspicion by the workers. 6. Disguised Unemployment. As the word suggests, disguised unemployment refers to a situation when a person is apparently employed, but in effect unemployed. !t is a phenomenon of concealed unemployment, not visible to the open eyes. Here it is not possible to identify as to who are unemployed, as all â€Å"appear to be working.† As Nurkse has remarked, â€Å"In an overpopulated peasant economy, we cannot point to any person and say he is unemployed in disguise. The people may all be occupied and no one may consider himself idle.† The concept of disguised unemployment was originally conceived by Mrs. Joan Robinson. Her concept of disguised unemployment is more applicable to the advanced developed countries. According to her, â€Å"a decline in demand for the product of the general run of industries leads to a diversification of labour from occupations in which productivity is higher, to others where it is lower. The cause of this diversion, a decline in effective demand, is exactly the same as the cause of unemployment in the ordinary sense and it is natural to describe the adoption occupations by dismissed workers as disguised unemployment.† Conclusion Unemployment is something which is of great concern to individuals as well as the economy. It is surely something to worry about as it wastes economic resources and causes human suffering such as poverty, famine, depression and so on. Also experiences of unemployment are becoming much longer in duration and are increasing significantly. Hence alleviation of unemployment is a prime aim of the government in order to boost the economy. How could you measure unemployment and discuss the problem associated with each measure? Most people understand intuitively that being unemployed means not having a job. That said, it’s important to understand more precisely how unemployment is measured in order to properly interpret and make sense of the numbers. Basically there are two types of method to measure unemployment: I. Claimant count method II. The Labour Force Survey Claimant Count Method This method calculates unemployment by measuring the number of people receiving benefits (Job Seekers allowance). If the rate is up, it indicates a lack of expansion within the labor market, while it indicates economic expansion and could spark inflationary pressures if the rate is down. Generally, a decrease of the figure is seen as positive, while an increase is seen as negative. Source: www.fxwords.com Graph 2 shows: claimant count of United Kingdom An example of a claimant count chart can be illustrated above where we can analyses a decreasing trend during the years of people claiming for unemployment benefits thus indicating beneficial economic conditions, ceteris paribus. The Labour Force Survey A labour force survey is an inquiry directed to households designed to obtain information on the labour market and related issues by means of personal interviews. The information collected on the labour market can then be used to develop, manage, evaluate and report on labour market policies. According to the Mauritius Labour Force, Employment and Unemployment survey the following result were obtained: Second quarter 2012 1. Employment of Mauritians is estimated at 548,300 at the second quarter of 2012 compared to 535,500 at the first quarter of 2012 and 531,400 at the second quarter of 2011. 2. The unemployment rate is estimated at 8.2% for the second quarter of 2012 compared to 8.0% at both the first quarter of 2012 and the second quarter of 2011. 3. The main characteristics of the unemployed at the second quarter of 2012 were: (i) The 48,900 unemployed comprised 20,100 males (41%) and 28,800 females (59%). (ii) Around 22,300 (46%) of them were aged below 25 years. (iii) About 55% of the unemployed were single. Among males, the majority (80%) was single while among females, the majority (61%) was ever married. (iv) Some 7,800 or 16% had not reached the Certificate of Primary Education (CPE) level or equivalent and a further 21,900 (45%) did not have the Cambridge School Certificate (SC) or equivalent. (v) 11,300 (23%) had been looking for work for more than one year. (vi) 18,900 (39%) were looking for a job for the first time. Thus these result could be use to devise policies by the government for example whether to invest more or not, in order to combat unemployment and other economic turmoil. Reference: gov.mu Problem associated with claimant count: The criteria to be eligible for benefits often changes, usually this has been to reduce the claimant count. This makes it difficult to compare over time. The claimant count excludes: People over pension age, who will typically claim pensions rather than Job Seekers allowance People under 18, (with a few exceptions) People in full time education, who may still be classed as unemployed. People not eligible for contribution based JSA. To claim the contributions based JSA they need to have paid at least two years of NI contributions. Also, their level of savings or their partner’s income may be too high to be eligible. Any one on a government training schemes Married women looking to return to work Those looking for part time work and not full time work Some people may claim benefits whilst still working in the â€Å"black market† i.e. claim JSA fraudulently. Some people may be able to work upto 16 hours a week and still legally claim JSA (JSA- Job Seekers allowance) Problem associated with Labour force survey It could be subject to sampling errors and may not be truly representative. The sample chosen may be from just few regions of the country, instead of the whole population/every region. This will generate bias result thus it will be wrongly interpreted leading to inefficient policies to combat unemployment. It is time consuming and costly, basically conducting this survey may take months or years depending on the size of the economy and the number of population. In the same vein a lot of paper work is needed for this survey, more officers must be hired to conduct private interview. Hence there is no perfect method to measure unemployment accurately, as all measures have theirs pros and cons. For example claimant count consider various criteria to be eligible for the allowance whereas Labour Force Survey may not be representative. The method to measure unemployment also depend on the type of economy Discuss the effect of unemployment on an economy? Unemployment is universally recognized as a bad thing. It brings a lot of adverse effect to an economy. The consequences are as follows: 1. The consequences to the individual Increase health risk Unemployment increases susceptibility to malnutrition, illness, mental stress, and loss of self-esteem, leading to depression. Not everyone suffers equally from unemployment, highly conscientious people suffers more than twice. For example fresh graduates or people holding a degree but is unable to find a job are the most affected. Basically the table below shows the unemployment rate of people having a tertiary education in Mauritius. The Unemployment with tertiary education (% of total unemployment) in Mauritius was last reported at 7.90 in 2010, according to a World Bank report published in 2012. Graph 3 show: Unemployment with tertiary education (% of total unemployment) in Mauritius Source: indexmundi.com /cso Loss of income Unemployment normally results in a loss of income. The majority of the unemployed experience a decline in their living standards and are worse off out of work. This leads to a decline in spending power and the rise of falling into debt problems. The unemployed for example may find it difficult to keep up with their mortgage repayments. 2. The Consequences to the business Less overall spending When people are unemployed in large numbers, it hurts the rest of the economy, creating a cyclical problem. When people have less money to spend because of unemployment, other companies suffer from less consumer demand. Then, when companies suffer because of lost business, they might in turn be forced to make layoffs of their own, making the unemployment rate rise and overall spending drop even more. The cyclical effect of unemployment is the reason for government-issued economic stimulus packages to help businesses in difficulty. Logic suggests that when people have more money, they spend it, thereby stimulating the economy and simulating job growth. Social problems Business may be impacted by social problems associated with high unemployment (e.g. rising crime). If the market of a business is situated in a place where the crime rate is high and where there is high unemployment rate, it can have adverse effect on the business. Demand may fall due to the negative image of the areas, potential consumers may prefer to purchase their goods and services at a more secure place for personal security thus if demand fall, the firm’s revenue will decrease which can lead to bankruptcy consequently more people will be unemployment. Inferior goods Demand for inferior goods (lower price, quality) may increase, the demand for luxury goods will decrease. Thus business engage in production of inferior good will gain and those in luxury good will lose. Graph 1: demand for luxury goods under unemployment Graph 2: demand for inferior goods under unemployment As shown above, in graph 1 the demand of luxury goods has decrease from D to D1 due to unemployment, lack of potential buyers. Quantity supply has decreased from Q to Q1 leading to a decrease in price from P to P1. Area P,T,Z,P1 is the loss incurred by the firm operating under luxury goods production. On the contrary graph 2 shows the increase in demand for inferior goods from D to D1 due to unemployment. People will prefer to buy cheap goods due to lack of income. Quantity supply has increase from S to S1 causing price to rise in the long run from P to P1. Area P1,T,Z,P is the profit incurred by the firm operating under inferior goods production due to a rise in demand. 3. The Consequences for the government Fiscal costs High unemployment has an impact on government expenditure, taxation. An increase in unemployment results in higher benefit payments and lower tax revenues. When individuals are unemployed, not only do they receive benefits but also pay no income tax. As they are spending less they contribute less to the government in indirect taxes, the government will have to scale back plans for public spending on public and merit goods. Government Borrowing Spending along with the fall in tax revenues due to unemployment may result in a higher government borrowing requirement (known as a public sector net cash requirement). The Central government debt; total (current LCU) in Mauritius was last reported at 113289300000 in 2010, according to a World Bank report published in 2012. Graph 4 shows: The government of Mauritius debts 4. The Consequences for the economy as a whole Lost output of goods and services Unemployment causes a waste of scarce economic resources and reduces the long run growth potential of the economy. An economy with high unemployment is producing within its production possibility frontier. The hours that the unemployed do not work can never be recovered. Negative multiplier effects The closure of a local factory with the loss of hundreds of jobs can have a large negative multiplier effect on both the local and regional economy. One person’s spending is another’s income so to lose well-paid jobs can lead to a drop in demand for local services, downward pressure on house prices and ‘second-round employment effects’ for businesses supplying the factor or plant that closed down. Hence unemployment affects many aspects in an economy such as social, individual, economical and so on. Unemployment affects the economy in ways that most people do not visually see. Some effects are avoidable and some are inevitable. Evaluate the impact of the different policy measures adopted by the government of Mauritius in order to control unemployment? A range of government policies are available for the Government of Mauritius wanting to reduce the scale of unemployment in the economy. The Government can do many things to try and influence the level of employment. However some policies the government use can conflict with other policies for example if they were to spend more on education and training (so increasing the skills of workers) they would have to spend less on other things such as health-care. Basically the situation of unemployment in Mauritius is alarming, here is a chart to illustrate the seriousness of the issue: ChChGraph 5 : shows the Mauritius unemployed persons Unemployed Persons in Mauritius increased to 44000 Persons in February of 2012 from 43800 Persons in November of 2011, according to a report released by the Central Statistics Office, Mauritius. Historically, from 2004 until 2012, Mauritius Unemployed Persons averaged 45757.6 Persons reaching an all time high of 56100.0 Persons in May of 2005 and a record low of 35000.0 Persons in November of 2008. Source:indexmundi.com Fiscal measure: The ‘Additional Stimulus Package’ was presented in December 2008 to support enterprises on a short-term basis. The package introduced a ‘Mechanism for Transitional Support to the Private Sector’, which was eventually replaced by ‘the Economic Restructuring and Competitiveness Programme’ in 2010’ under the â€Å"Facing the Euro Zone Crisis & Restructuring for Long Term Resilience’ Memorandum presented in August 2010. This programme also included SURE (Support Unit for Re-Employment of Employees), and plans for restructuring the tourism industry, and for supporting the sugar industry. In 2012, Rs 7.3 Billion has been committed to a National Resilience Fund to help businesses better face the economic downturn. Thus this would secure current employees job and would create new jobs. During the financial crisis in the 2008, The government of Mauritius injected Rs6 billion in the economy for education, training, food security and This massive investment has been possible due to the fruit of past reforms in terms of fiscal benefits. In addition to these policy options, the Mauritian government introduced an Additional Stimulus Package in December 2008. In effect, Rs4 billion was earmarked to save employment. Much effort was made to sustain, modernise and ease the access to finance of local enterprises to help them improve their productivity and competitiveness. In year 2011, 5000 new Small & Medium Enterprises were created and were awarded grants by the government compared to 7,600 in Reunion Island in the same year. Thus creating jobs. The government proposed a tax rebate on all earnings for new entrepreneurs in the first two years, certain taxes have been suspended over two years, in tourism, construction and other sectors. Consequently, there will be a boost in their revenue and it may encourage the creation of new jobs. Source: Le Matinal(newspaper) Supply side policies (reduce frictional and structural unemployment) To educate is to empower. The government proposed more funds allocated to SMEs so that they can provide required training to their employees. The National Resiliency Fund was created last year by the Minister of Finance to encourage ‘the youth employment. The government in his last budget proposed that all secondary schools have a qualified career advisor and propose that all schools promote extra-curricular activities such as the ‘Young Enterprise Awards’. There should also be qualified staff in each state school, to help channel underperforming students in their right vocation. The Minister of Finance promised Rs 500,000 to schools around the island. The more skillful you are the more secure you are to get a job. Reflating Aggregate Demand The government succeeded in attracting foreign direct investment in Mauritius as it rose by 19.8 percent in the first six months of 2012 to 4.077 billion Mauritius rupees ($133.89 million) from 3.401 billion a year ago, according to the central bank thus contributing in enhancing the real national output consequently increasing the demand for labour. Foreign direct investment has risen causing aggregate demand to shift from AD1 to AD2 consequently the demand for labour to shift from LD1 to LD2 causing an obvious decrease in unemployment. Basically in assessing the effectiveness of these measures we just have to compare the working population to previous years: Graph 6 shows: Employed persons in Mauritius Economic policies till 2008 to 2012 had a positive impact on the labour market as there has been a rise in labour force which shows the effectiveness of these policies adopted by the government of Mauritius. Hence unemployment do not have an exact definition, it do not have a measure to calculate it exactly, its effects are vast and there are various measures to combat it. Unemployment is inevitable in an economy. The economy must see unemployment as a challenge, opportunity and tackle the issue with intelligence, not as a major economic turmoil, or be afraid of.

Information Technology

1. What does it mean to live in the â€Å"digital age†? B. Living, working, learning, and playing in a digital world 2. Why do we consider technology invasive? B. Technology is so pervasive that we believe we cannot live without it 3. How long did it take for iPod to penetrate a market audience of 50 million people? B. 3 years 4. What percentage of today's Fortune 500 companies are technology companies? B. 10% 5. What is the difference between how you would purchase technology compared to the way businesses purchase technology? A. Your purchase is based upon money availability; businesses' are based upon competitive advantage . If you wanted to ensure that your business maintains a desirable return on your investment with technology, what should be one of your main concerns? A. Your technology helps streamline costs without sacrificing quality 7. If you wanted to ensure that your business maintains a competitive edge, what should be one of your main concerns when purchasing te chnology? D. The new technology enables you to be innovative and move into new markets 8. Which question does not support a business' efforts to support and maintain a competitive edge? C. Can this technology make the company look better? 9. Should a business' decisions about its technology drive its business strategy? D. No, business strategy should drive decisions about its technology 10. When a business is analyzing its technology needs, it should follow a series of steps. Which of the following is not one of these steps? C. Determine the type of technology that employees are comfortable working with 11. What should you understand first when analyzing the technology needs of your business? A. The industry in which your business operates 12. After you understand your competition and its affect on your industry, what should you do next? C. Align your strategies, processes, and technology with your understanding of your industry 13. Which of the following deals with the planning for, development, management, and use of information technology? B. Management information systems 14. Management information systems (MIS) focuses on which of the following? B. Tasks related to information processing and management 15. Which of the following is not a key resource of MIS? D. Methods 16. Which of the following is the least important resource within MIS? B. Technology 17. Which of the following statements successfully differentiates the term MIS from IT? C. IT is a component of MIS 18. Which of the following deals with the planning for, development, management, and use of information technology? B. Management information systems 19. What coordinates and uses three organizational resources; information, people, and IT? A. MIS 1. What is the name of the non-paid, non-employee business model of collaboration used by Goldcorp a Toronto-based gold mining company in Canada? D. Crowdsourcing 2. What is a distribution chain? C. The path a product or service follows from its originator to the consumer 3. In contemporary business, success depends on minimizing the _____ in an attempt to reduce the costs of producing and selling products or services. C. Distribution chain 4. Which of the following activities tracks inventory and information among business processes and across companies? A. Supply chain management (SCM) 5. Which of the following is a method for producing or delivering a product or service just at the time the customer wants it? B. Just-in-time manufacturing 6. Which term describes an approach that produces or delivers a product or service just at the time the customer wants it? A. Just-in-time . If you were to purchase a car before it was manufactured and the assembly of that car was dictated by your requirements, you would be utilizing which type of manufacturing process? A. Customer-driven manufacturing B. Just-in-time manufacturing C. Customized construction D. Transaction-based production 8. Which type of transportation uses multiple channels to transport products f rom the manufacturing location to the customer destination? C. Inter-modal 9. The complexity of SCM is supported by technology. Which intricate SCM activity needs strong monitoring by SCM systems? A. Multi-channel service delivery B. Customer tracking C. Inter-modal transportation D. Sales force tracking 10. What is the primary focus of supply chain management (SCM)? D. Overall cost leadership and below the line initiative 11. Which of the following results from a well-designed supply chain management system? D. Well-designed SCM systems can enhance any of these stated activities 12. In relation to SCM, what is an information partnership? B. Two or more companies cooperating by integrating their IT systems 13. Optimizing what ensures that the right quantity of parts arrive at the right time for production or sale? D. Fulfillment 14. Optimizing what keeps the cost of transporting materials as low as possible? A. Logistics 15. For a moment, imagine yourself visiting your local florist to order flowers for a party you were preparing for. The florist, however, did not have the type of flower arrangement you hoped for but the florist was able to immediately find, order and deliver this arrangement directly to your home from their supplier. What kind of relationship does this represent? A. An information partnership 16. Which of the following systems primarily concentrates on the customer? A. CRM 17. Which of the following systems uses information about customers to gain insights into their needs, wants, and behaviors in order to serve them better? D. Customer relationship management (CRM) 18. Which of the following systems can be used to gain insights into the needs, wants, and behaviors of customers? B. Customer relationship management systems (CRM) 19. Which term describes a business' approach to offering multiple ways in which customers can interact with it? C. Multi-channel service delivery 20. What is a fundamental goal of CRM systems? C. To manage and track customer interactions 1. To succeed in business and to enable your organization to extract meaningful information from its information repositories, you need which type of application? B. Business intelligence 2. What application enables your organization to analyze competitor, customer, environmental, and internal data? C. Business intelligence 3. Which system allows your organization to gather, process, and update transactional information? A. Online analytical processing (OLAP) 4. What is another name for a database that supports OLTP? D. Operational database 5. Which application supports the manipulation of information to support decision making? D. Online analytical processing (OLAP) 6. A senior manager who analyzes internal and external information to analyze marketing campaigns and their affect on customer buying habits is using which type of application? A. Online analytical processing (OLAP) 7. Which application is considered the â€Å"heart and soul† of any organization? D. Databases 8. What is the most popular model for creating databases? D. Relational database 9. Which of the following terms represent an organized and structured collection of information? B. Database 10. Which type of database stores data in a series of logically related two-dimensional tables or files? D. Relational 11. Your student ID is an example of a(n) _____. A. Relation 12. Which term refers to a specific piece of data that is stored in a database file? D. Attribute 13. Which type of database model organizes and accesses information according to its logical structure rather than its physical structure? C. Relational 14. Which part of a relational database contains the logical structure for the information? A. Data dictionary 15. If you needed to store facts about information that you were collecting, you would store these facts in the _____. D. Data dictionary 6. Which type of application requires that you know the physical location of information before you are able to access it? C. Spreadsheets 17. Which type of database is used when you want to create ties in the information that show how the files relate to each other? D. Relational 18. What is the type of field, or group of fields, that can uniquely identify each record in a database? C. Primary key 19. If your phone num ber was used in a clothing store to uniquely identify you as a customer, the phone number would be considered a(n) _____. C. Primary key 20. Every primary key can also be a(n) _____ key. A. Foreign 1. In what decision making phase do you recognize a problem, need, or opportunity? D. Intelligence 2. If you were to identify and investigate a problem in your organization, what decision making phase would you be in? C. Intelligence 3. In what decision making phase do you consider possible ways of solving problems, filling needs, or capitalizing on opportunities? A. Design 4. In what decision making phase do you examine and weigh the merits of solutions, estimate the consequence of each, and choose the best solution? B. Choice 5. In what decision making phase do you implement solutions and monitor and adjust the environment based on the consequences of these solutions? C. Implementation 6. If you were â€Å"tweaking† your technology solution so that it worked more efficiently than its original form, what decision making phase would you be in? A. Implementation 7. When you make a choice that may not necessarily be the best choice but it meets your needs, you're making a(n) _____ choice. A. Satisficing 8. There are four main types of decisions. Which one represents decisions that always have a right answer? D. Structured 9. Which of the four types of decisions occur sporadically, perhaps only once? B. Nonrecurring or ad hoc 10. If you were making a decision involving â€Å"fuzzy logic† what type of decision would you be making? A. Nonstructured 11. In business and in life, where do most decisions fit into? C. Between structured and unstructured 12. There are four main types of decisions. Which one occurs on a regular basis? B. Recurring 13. There are four main types of decisions. Which one occurs on an ad hoc? B. Nonrecurring 14. What type of information system is built to support decisions based on problems that are not structured? C. Decision support systems 15. What must you have before you can effectively use a DSS? B. Considerable knowledge or expertise 16. What is the purpose of a decision support system? B. To assist you with making decisions 17. A decision support system (DSS) typically has three components. Which of the following is not one of these components? B. Query management 18. Which DSS component consists of both the DSS models and the DSS model management system? D. Model management 19. If you were to take facts about your business, mix them with historical information, and then create a computer simulation to help you understand future events, you would be creating ____. C. A model 0. Which type of information is not found in a DSS? B. Confidence levels 1. What day occurs after Black Friday; when consumers go back to work and shop online on the Internet for products they found on Black Friday on retail shelves? B. Cyber Monday 2. What type of commerce is possible because of the Internet and is accelerated and enhanced by it and the technology that supports it? A. E-commerce 3. What formal business plan maps out your customer base and your strategy for reaching them? D. Path-to-profitability (P2P) 4. If you wanted to avoid the failure of the dot-com businesses from the late 1990s, what does the author recommend you do? C. Develop a path-to-profitability (P2P) plan 5. Which type of e-commerce occurs when a business sells products or services to customers who are primarily other businesses? D. B2B 6. Which e-commerce model has proven to be the most lucrative model in the world? C. B2B 7. If your company sold widgets to the automobile industry and these sales were conducted through the Internet, what type of e-commerce model would you be using? C. B2B 8. What term depicts a virtual marketplace in which all businesses buy from and sell products and services to each other, and share information? B. E-Markets (EM) 9. Which type of e-commerce occurs when a business sells products and services to customers who are primarily individuals? B. B2C 10. In the 1990s, which of the following fueled the early growth of e-commerce? A. B2C 11. When you purchase your books for this course from an online source such as Amazon. com, you are conducting which type of e-commerce? D. B2C 12. Which e-commerce business model depicts demand driven by the consumer with supply driven by the business? B. C2B 13. What is the major difference between B2B and B2C e-commerce? C. Interaction between consumers and businesses are direct in the B2B market; they are indirect in the B2C market 14. Which type e-commerce occurs when an individual sells products and services to a business? A. C2B 15. In what type of e-commerce do the consumer drive supply and the business drive demand? A. C2B 16. Fotolia is an excellent example of which type of e-commerce? D. C2B 17. If you created links on your personal Web site that connected your visitors to businesses with the goal that you would earn a fee for purchases made by your visitors, what type e-commerce model are you creating? D. C2C 18. Affiliate programs are good examples of which type of e-commerce? D. C2B 19. Which type of e-commerce occurs when an individual sells products and services to another individual? A. C2C 20. Which type of e-commerce model typically requires the use of an intermediary organization to complete transactions? B. G2C 1. There are methods to designing and developing business applications. Which of the following is not one of these methods? C. Networking 2. Which of the following systems development techniques requires IT specialists that are in-house to develop business applications? B. Insourcing 3. Which of the following systems development techniques allows end users to develop business applications? D. Selfsourcing 4. If you were developing marketing strategies and, in your job, decided to create a database that tracked the progress of your marketing efforts, what kind of development would you be engaging in? C. Selfsourcing 5. Which of the following systems development techniques delegate development tasks to a third party for a specified cost, period of time, and level of service? B. Outsourcing 6. What is the difference between insourcing and selfsourcing? C. Selfsourcing allows for end user development; insourcing requires internal IT staff 7. What is the systems development life cycle (SDLC)? B. A structured approach for developing information systems 8. What is the waterfall methodology? A. A sequential, activity based SDLC 9. The SDLC contains seven phases. Which phase is devoted to creating a solid plan for developing your information system? B. Planning 10. The SDLC contains seven phases. Which phase involves end users and IT specialist working together to gather, understand, and document the business requirements for the proposed system? D. Analysis 11. The SDLC contains seven phases. Which phase builds a technical blueprint of how the proposed system will work? A. Design 12. The SDLC contains seven phases. Which phase transforms the design into an actual system? C. Development 13. The SDLC contains seven phases. Which phase verifies that the system works and meets all the business requirements developed in an earlier phase? D. Testing 14. The SDLC contains seven phases. Which phase distributes the system to all the users so that they can use it to perform their jobs? A. Implementation 15. The SDLC contains seven phases. Which phase monitors and supports the new system to ensure it continues to meet your business goals? C. Maintenance 16. Which of the following is a characteristic of a proposed system that is essential to the success of your organization? C. Critical success factor 17. What is a project scope document? B. A one-paragraph statement about the scope of the proposed project 18. Which of the following occurs when the scope of the project increases beyond its original intentions? A. Scope creep 19. Which of the following occurs when developers and end users add extra features that were not part of the initial requirements? B. Feature creep 20. What document defines the what, when, and who questions of systems development including all activities to be performed, the individuals, or resources, who will perform the activities, and the time required to complete each activity? B. Project plan 1. Which of the following focuses on the development, use, and reuse of small self-contained blocks of code to meet all the application software needs of an organization? D. Service-oriented architecture (SOA) 2. An SOA mentality has many advantages. Which of the following is not one of these? B. Is reactive in nature and waits until technology and changes in the environment are stable 3. What does an IT-enabled SOA philosophy provide for the customers of an organization? D. Multi-channel services, and customizable products and services 4. What type of technology would allow a customer in a SOA environment to connect to any communications channel (e. g. , fax or Web) in an organization? C. Plug-and-play 5. Which of the following statement is true regarding an SOA philosophy about the end user of IT? A. The end user should be thought of in the same way as a customer 6. Which category of business application satisfies the SOA philosophy for the end user? D. ERP 7. According to the SOA philosophy, should end users be able to access an organization's computing and information resources from any place they're currently working? A. Yes 8. According to the SOA philosophy, what is the most important organizational resource? D. People 9. With regards to information, what does an SOA approach require? A. Information must be in a standard format no matter where it is 10. With regards to hardware, what does an SOA approach require? C. Integrated and seamless technology platforms 1. What is the term that depicts â€Å"the structure beneath a structure†? D. Infrastructure 12. What does the â€Å"IT structure beneath a structure† include? A. Hardware, software, and information 13. According to the authors, what vendor now offers ERP solutions – Great Plaine – to small and medium-sized companies? B. Microsoft 14. Which of the following is not considered a dominate player in ERP systems? C. Cognos 15. SAP is one of the dominate ERP software suppliers. What module area of ERP software do they specialize in? B. Logistics 16. At what percent has the ERP market been growing per year? C. 30% 17. The ERP market has been growing at a rate of at least 30 percent per year. Why? D. Globalization 18. Which of the following is not a reason for the rapid increase in ERP systems? D. Increase investments in data warehousing and mining 19. The growth of the ERP market has been boasted by both business and technical factors. With respect to business, what is the most cited reason for this growth? C. Globalization 20. The growth of the ERP market has been boasted by both business and technical factors. With respect to the technical aspect, what is the most cited reason for this growth? C. EU currency 1. What are the principles and standards that guide our behavior toward other people? B. Ethics 2. There are two fundamental factors that determine your ethical reaction to dilemmas. What is one of them? A. Your basic ethical structure 3. There are two fundamental factors that determine your ethical reaction to dilemmas. What is one of them? C. The circumstances surrounding the dilemma 4. There are different levels of uncertainty when faced with ethical decisions; each creates a sort of ring around the dilemma. What is true of the outside level or ring? D. The behavior or actions aren't considered awful and are more accepted by society . There are different levels of uncertainty when faced with ethical decisions; each creates a sort of ring around the dilemma. What is true of the inside level or ring? C. Illegal and/or unethical behavior become less tolerated by society 6. Your decisions about an ethical dilemma are influenced by practical circumstances. Which of the following is not co nsidered an influencing circumstance? D. Time from action 7. Your decisions regarding ethics are influenced by a number of factors. Which is not one of these factors? C. Your age, gender, education, and socio-economic status 8. If you were concerned about how a person would feel because of something you did, you would be experiencing what type of influencing circumstance? D. Reach of result 9. Are ethical dilemmas easy to understand? D. No, they usually arise from a clash between competing goals, responsibilities, and loyalties 10. Which of the following protects the intangible creative work that is embodied in physical form? B. Intellectual property 11. If you were to create a computer game for a homework assignment in programming, what type of law provides you with some protection against people selling your game without your consent? B. Copyright 2. If you were to create a self portrait and you place this portrait on your Web site, what type of law protects your work from anyone downloading and using it? A. Copyright 13. Which of the following protects expressions of ideas, literary and dramatic works, musical and theatrical compositions, and works of art? D. Copyright 14. What is the legal protection af forded an expression of an idea, such as a song, video game, and some types of proprietary documents? C. Copyright 15. Which type of law allows people to use copyrighted material in teaching environments without obtaining the consent of the owner of this material? C. Fair Use Doctrine 16. What says that you may use copyrighted material in certain situations — for example, in the creation of new work or, within certain limits, for teaching purposes? D. Fair Use Doctrine 17. Is copyright infringement illegal? B. Yes, outside of a fair use situation 18. Can you make a copy of software that you buy? D. Only if the software vendor grants you the right to copy it 19. When you purchase copyrighted software, what are you actually paying for? D. The right to use it 20. Which of the following is the unauthorized use, duplication, distribution, or sale of copyrighted software? A. Pirated software 1. What is the technology called that will allow you to take your TV programming with you? C. Sling 2. Which of the following would not be considered a new Internet-based trend or technology? C. Web 1. 0 3. What is software-as-a-service (SaaS)? C. Software that you pay for its use; the more often you use it the more often you pay 4. Which of the following is a delivery model that would enable you to rent software? C. SaaS 5. What type of Internet company provides pay-per-use software? D. Application service provider (ASP) . If you were traveling abroad and needed to use some software that you did not currently have, and did not want to purchase, what type of software could you rent during this trip? D. Application Service Provider (ASP) 7. When you are using a Web-based server to run applications, what issues should you be concerned with? A. Security of your data and personal information from the company; some of these companies will sell this information to a thi rd party 8. What is push technology? C. Information that finds its way automatically to you 9. Which of the following technologies will affect push technology the most? D. Database and data warehouses 10. Which of the following is an e-commerce model in which a consumer communicates through an Internet company with a manufacturer to create customized products? A. F2b2C 11. What is the term used when intermediate business partners in traditional distribution channels are bypassed? C. Disintermediation 12. Which of the following technologies allows you to send voice communications over the Internet and avoid the toll charges traditionally incurred by consumers? C. VoIP 13. What new Web environment features online collaboration, dynamic and customized feeds, and greater control of Web content by users? B. Web 2. 0 14. What type of Web site allows you, as a visitor, to create, edit, change, and delete content? B. Wiki 15. If you were reading an article located on a Web site and were able to update the article based on information that you discovered from your work, what type of Web site would you be working on? A. Wiki 16. What is it called when a business provides enabling technologies to their customers so that they are able to create, modify, and oversee the development of a product or service? C. Crowdsourcing 17. What technology is in the form of a journal in which you post entries in chronological order and often includes the capabilities for other viewers to add comments to your journal entries? C. Blogs 18. What is the difference between a social networking site and a blog? A. Social networking sites create a community of people; blogs keep people informed 19. What technology provides frequently published and updated digital content on the Web? C. RSS feed 20. What term refers to your ability to download audio and video files into a handheld, portable device? D. Podcasting Information Technology 1. What does it mean to live in the â€Å"digital age†? B. Living, working, learning, and playing in a digital world 2. Why do we consider technology invasive? B. Technology is so pervasive that we believe we cannot live without it 3. How long did it take for iPod to penetrate a market audience of 50 million people? B. 3 years 4. What percentage of today's Fortune 500 companies are technology companies? B. 10% 5. What is the difference between how you would purchase technology compared to the way businesses purchase technology? A. Your purchase is based upon money availability; businesses' are based upon competitive advantage . If you wanted to ensure that your business maintains a desirable return on your investment with technology, what should be one of your main concerns? A. Your technology helps streamline costs without sacrificing quality 7. If you wanted to ensure that your business maintains a competitive edge, what should be one of your main concerns when purchasing te chnology? D. The new technology enables you to be innovative and move into new markets 8. Which question does not support a business' efforts to support and maintain a competitive edge? C. Can this technology make the company look better? 9. Should a business' decisions about its technology drive its business strategy? D. No, business strategy should drive decisions about its technology 10. When a business is analyzing its technology needs, it should follow a series of steps. Which of the following is not one of these steps? C. Determine the type of technology that employees are comfortable working with 11. What should you understand first when analyzing the technology needs of your business? A. The industry in which your business operates 12. After you understand your competition and its affect on your industry, what should you do next? C. Align your strategies, processes, and technology with your understanding of your industry 13. Which of the following deals with the planning for, development, management, and use of information technology? B. Management information systems 14. Management information systems (MIS) focuses on which of the following? B. Tasks related to information processing and management 15. Which of the following is not a key resource of MIS? D. Methods 16. Which of the following is the least important resource within MIS? B. Technology 17. Which of the following statements successfully differentiates the term MIS from IT? C. IT is a component of MIS 18. Which of the following deals with the planning for, development, management, and use of information technology? B. Management information systems 19. What coordinates and uses three organizational resources; information, people, and IT? A. MIS 1. What is the name of the non-paid, non-employee business model of collaboration used by Goldcorp a Toronto-based gold mining company in Canada? D. Crowdsourcing 2. What is a distribution chain? C. The path a product or service follows from its originator to the consumer 3. In contemporary business, success depends on minimizing the _____ in an attempt to reduce the costs of producing and selling products or services. C. Distribution chain 4. Which of the following activities tracks inventory and information among business processes and across companies? A. Supply chain management (SCM) 5. Which of the following is a method for producing or delivering a product or service just at the time the customer wants it? B. Just-in-time manufacturing 6. Which term describes an approach that produces or delivers a product or service just at the time the customer wants it? A. Just-in-time . If you were to purchase a car before it was manufactured and the assembly of that car was dictated by your requirements, you would be utilizing which type of manufacturing process? A. Customer-driven manufacturing B. Just-in-time manufacturing C. Customized construction D. Transaction-based production 8. Which type of transportation uses multiple channels to transport products f rom the manufacturing location to the customer destination? C. Inter-modal 9. The complexity of SCM is supported by technology. Which intricate SCM activity needs strong monitoring by SCM systems? A. Multi-channel service delivery B. Customer tracking C. Inter-modal transportation D. Sales force tracking 10. What is the primary focus of supply chain management (SCM)? D. Overall cost leadership and below the line initiative 11. Which of the following results from a well-designed supply chain management system? D. Well-designed SCM systems can enhance any of these stated activities 12. In relation to SCM, what is an information partnership? B. Two or more companies cooperating by integrating their IT systems 13. Optimizing what ensures that the right quantity of parts arrive at the right time for production or sale? D. Fulfillment 14. Optimizing what keeps the cost of transporting materials as low as possible? A. Logistics 15. For a moment, imagine yourself visiting your local florist to order flowers for a party you were preparing for. The florist, however, did not have the type of flower arrangement you hoped for but the florist was able to immediately find, order and deliver this arrangement directly to your home from their supplier. What kind of relationship does this represent? A. An information partnership 16. Which of the following systems primarily concentrates on the customer? A. CRM 17. Which of the following systems uses information about customers to gain insights into their needs, wants, and behaviors in order to serve them better? D. Customer relationship management (CRM) 18. Which of the following systems can be used to gain insights into the needs, wants, and behaviors of customers? B. Customer relationship management systems (CRM) 19. Which term describes a business' approach to offering multiple ways in which customers can interact with it? C. Multi-channel service delivery 20. What is a fundamental goal of CRM systems? C. To manage and track customer interactions 1. To succeed in business and to enable your organization to extract meaningful information from its information repositories, you need which type of application? B. Business intelligence 2. What application enables your organization to analyze competitor, customer, environmental, and internal data? C. Business intelligence 3. Which system allows your organization to gather, process, and update transactional information? A. Online analytical processing (OLAP) 4. What is another name for a database that supports OLTP? D. Operational database 5. Which application supports the manipulation of information to support decision making? D. Online analytical processing (OLAP) 6. A senior manager who analyzes internal and external information to analyze marketing campaigns and their affect on customer buying habits is using which type of application? A. Online analytical processing (OLAP) 7. Which application is considered the â€Å"heart and soul† of any organization? D. Databases 8. What is the most popular model for creating databases? D. Relational database 9. Which of the following terms represent an organized and structured collection of information? B. Database 10. Which type of database stores data in a series of logically related two-dimensional tables or files? D. Relational 11. Your student ID is an example of a(n) _____. A. Relation 12. Which term refers to a specific piece of data that is stored in a database file? D. Attribute 13. Which type of database model organizes and accesses information according to its logical structure rather than its physical structure? C. Relational 14. Which part of a relational database contains the logical structure for the information? A. Data dictionary 15. If you needed to store facts about information that you were collecting, you would store these facts in the _____. D. Data dictionary 6. Which type of application requires that you know the physical location of information before you are able to access it? C. Spreadsheets 17. Which type of database is used when you want to create ties in the information that show how the files relate to each other? D. Relational 18. What is the type of field, or group of fields, that can uniquely identify each record in a database? C. Primary key 19. If your phone num ber was used in a clothing store to uniquely identify you as a customer, the phone number would be considered a(n) _____. C. Primary key 20. Every primary key can also be a(n) _____ key. A. Foreign 1. In what decision making phase do you recognize a problem, need, or opportunity? D. Intelligence 2. If you were to identify and investigate a problem in your organization, what decision making phase would you be in? C. Intelligence 3. In what decision making phase do you consider possible ways of solving problems, filling needs, or capitalizing on opportunities? A. Design 4. In what decision making phase do you examine and weigh the merits of solutions, estimate the consequence of each, and choose the best solution? B. Choice 5. In what decision making phase do you implement solutions and monitor and adjust the environment based on the consequences of these solutions? C. Implementation 6. If you were â€Å"tweaking† your technology solution so that it worked more efficiently than its original form, what decision making phase would you be in? A. Implementation 7. When you make a choice that may not necessarily be the best choice but it meets your needs, you're making a(n) _____ choice. A. Satisficing 8. There are four main types of decisions. Which one represents decisions that always have a right answer? D. Structured 9. Which of the four types of decisions occur sporadically, perhaps only once? B. Nonrecurring or ad hoc 10. If you were making a decision involving â€Å"fuzzy logic† what type of decision would you be making? A. Nonstructured 11. In business and in life, where do most decisions fit into? C. Between structured and unstructured 12. There are four main types of decisions. Which one occurs on a regular basis? B. Recurring 13. There are four main types of decisions. Which one occurs on an ad hoc? B. Nonrecurring 14. What type of information system is built to support decisions based on problems that are not structured? C. Decision support systems 15. What must you have before you can effectively use a DSS? B. Considerable knowledge or expertise 16. What is the purpose of a decision support system? B. To assist you with making decisions 17. A decision support system (DSS) typically has three components. Which of the following is not one of these components? B. Query management 18. Which DSS component consists of both the DSS models and the DSS model management system? D. Model management 19. If you were to take facts about your business, mix them with historical information, and then create a computer simulation to help you understand future events, you would be creating ____. C. A model 0. Which type of information is not found in a DSS? B. Confidence levels 1. What day occurs after Black Friday; when consumers go back to work and shop online on the Internet for products they found on Black Friday on retail shelves? B. Cyber Monday 2. What type of commerce is possible because of the Internet and is accelerated and enhanced by it and the technology that supports it? A. E-commerce 3. What formal business plan maps out your customer base and your strategy for reaching them? D. Path-to-profitability (P2P) 4. If you wanted to avoid the failure of the dot-com businesses from the late 1990s, what does the author recommend you do? C. Develop a path-to-profitability (P2P) plan 5. Which type of e-commerce occurs when a business sells products or services to customers who are primarily other businesses? D. B2B 6. Which e-commerce model has proven to be the most lucrative model in the world? C. B2B 7. If your company sold widgets to the automobile industry and these sales were conducted through the Internet, what type of e-commerce model would you be using? C. B2B 8. What term depicts a virtual marketplace in which all businesses buy from and sell products and services to each other, and share information? B. E-Markets (EM) 9. Which type of e-commerce occurs when a business sells products and services to customers who are primarily individuals? B. B2C 10. In the 1990s, which of the following fueled the early growth of e-commerce? A. B2C 11. When you purchase your books for this course from an online source such as Amazon. com, you are conducting which type of e-commerce? D. B2C 12. Which e-commerce business model depicts demand driven by the consumer with supply driven by the business? B. C2B 13. What is the major difference between B2B and B2C e-commerce? C. Interaction between consumers and businesses are direct in the B2B market; they are indirect in the B2C market 14. Which type e-commerce occurs when an individual sells products and services to a business? A. C2B 15. In what type of e-commerce do the consumer drive supply and the business drive demand? A. C2B 16. Fotolia is an excellent example of which type of e-commerce? D. C2B 17. If you created links on your personal Web site that connected your visitors to businesses with the goal that you would earn a fee for purchases made by your visitors, what type e-commerce model are you creating? D. C2C 18. Affiliate programs are good examples of which type of e-commerce? D. C2B 19. Which type of e-commerce occurs when an individual sells products and services to another individual? A. C2C 20. Which type of e-commerce model typically requires the use of an intermediary organization to complete transactions? B. G2C 1. There are methods to designing and developing business applications. Which of the following is not one of these methods? C. Networking 2. Which of the following systems development techniques requires IT specialists that are in-house to develop business applications? B. Insourcing 3. Which of the following systems development techniques allows end users to develop business applications? D. Selfsourcing 4. If you were developing marketing strategies and, in your job, decided to create a database that tracked the progress of your marketing efforts, what kind of development would you be engaging in? C. Selfsourcing 5. Which of the following systems development techniques delegate development tasks to a third party for a specified cost, period of time, and level of service? B. Outsourcing 6. What is the difference between insourcing and selfsourcing? C. Selfsourcing allows for end user development; insourcing requires internal IT staff 7. What is the systems development life cycle (SDLC)? B. A structured approach for developing information systems 8. What is the waterfall methodology? A. A sequential, activity based SDLC 9. The SDLC contains seven phases. Which phase is devoted to creating a solid plan for developing your information system? B. Planning 10. The SDLC contains seven phases. Which phase involves end users and IT specialist working together to gather, understand, and document the business requirements for the proposed system? D. Analysis 11. The SDLC contains seven phases. Which phase builds a technical blueprint of how the proposed system will work? A. Design 12. The SDLC contains seven phases. Which phase transforms the design into an actual system? C. Development 13. The SDLC contains seven phases. Which phase verifies that the system works and meets all the business requirements developed in an earlier phase? D. Testing 14. The SDLC contains seven phases. Which phase distributes the system to all the users so that they can use it to perform their jobs? A. Implementation 15. The SDLC contains seven phases. Which phase monitors and supports the new system to ensure it continues to meet your business goals? C. Maintenance 16. Which of the following is a characteristic of a proposed system that is essential to the success of your organization? C. Critical success factor 17. What is a project scope document? B. A one-paragraph statement about the scope of the proposed project 18. Which of the following occurs when the scope of the project increases beyond its original intentions? A. Scope creep 19. Which of the following occurs when developers and end users add extra features that were not part of the initial requirements? B. Feature creep 20. What document defines the what, when, and who questions of systems development including all activities to be performed, the individuals, or resources, who will perform the activities, and the time required to complete each activity? B. Project plan 1. Which of the following focuses on the development, use, and reuse of small self-contained blocks of code to meet all the application software needs of an organization? D. Service-oriented architecture (SOA) 2. An SOA mentality has many advantages. Which of the following is not one of these? B. Is reactive in nature and waits until technology and changes in the environment are stable 3. What does an IT-enabled SOA philosophy provide for the customers of an organization? D. Multi-channel services, and customizable products and services 4. What type of technology would allow a customer in a SOA environment to connect to any communications channel (e. g. , fax or Web) in an organization? C. Plug-and-play 5. Which of the following statement is true regarding an SOA philosophy about the end user of IT? A. The end user should be thought of in the same way as a customer 6. Which category of business application satisfies the SOA philosophy for the end user? D. ERP 7. According to the SOA philosophy, should end users be able to access an organization's computing and information resources from any place they're currently working? A. Yes 8. According to the SOA philosophy, what is the most important organizational resource? D. People 9. With regards to information, what does an SOA approach require? A. Information must be in a standard format no matter where it is 10. With regards to hardware, what does an SOA approach require? C. Integrated and seamless technology platforms 1. What is the term that depicts â€Å"the structure beneath a structure†? D. Infrastructure 12. What does the â€Å"IT structure beneath a structure† include? A. Hardware, software, and information 13. According to the authors, what vendor now offers ERP solutions – Great Plaine – to small and medium-sized companies? B. Microsoft 14. Which of the following is not considered a dominate player in ERP systems? C. Cognos 15. SAP is one of the dominate ERP software suppliers. What module area of ERP software do they specialize in? B. Logistics 16. At what percent has the ERP market been growing per year? C. 30% 17. The ERP market has been growing at a rate of at least 30 percent per year. Why? D. Globalization 18. Which of the following is not a reason for the rapid increase in ERP systems? D. Increase investments in data warehousing and mining 19. The growth of the ERP market has been boasted by both business and technical factors. With respect to business, what is the most cited reason for this growth? C. Globalization 20. The growth of the ERP market has been boasted by both business and technical factors. With respect to the technical aspect, what is the most cited reason for this growth? C. EU currency 1. What are the principles and standards that guide our behavior toward other people? B. Ethics 2. There are two fundamental factors that determine your ethical reaction to dilemmas. What is one of them? A. Your basic ethical structure 3. There are two fundamental factors that determine your ethical reaction to dilemmas. What is one of them? C. The circumstances surrounding the dilemma 4. There are different levels of uncertainty when faced with ethical decisions; each creates a sort of ring around the dilemma. What is true of the outside level or ring? D. The behavior or actions aren't considered awful and are more accepted by society . There are different levels of uncertainty when faced with ethical decisions; each creates a sort of ring around the dilemma. What is true of the inside level or ring? C. Illegal and/or unethical behavior become less tolerated by society 6. Your decisions about an ethical dilemma are influenced by practical circumstances. Which of the following is not co nsidered an influencing circumstance? D. Time from action 7. Your decisions regarding ethics are influenced by a number of factors. Which is not one of these factors? C. Your age, gender, education, and socio-economic status 8. If you were concerned about how a person would feel because of something you did, you would be experiencing what type of influencing circumstance? D. Reach of result 9. Are ethical dilemmas easy to understand? D. No, they usually arise from a clash between competing goals, responsibilities, and loyalties 10. Which of the following protects the intangible creative work that is embodied in physical form? B. Intellectual property 11. If you were to create a computer game for a homework assignment in programming, what type of law provides you with some protection against people selling your game without your consent? B. Copyright 2. If you were to create a self portrait and you place this portrait on your Web site, what type of law protects your work from anyone downloading and using it? A. Copyright 13. Which of the following protects expressions of ideas, literary and dramatic works, musical and theatrical compositions, and works of art? D. Copyright 14. What is the legal protection af forded an expression of an idea, such as a song, video game, and some types of proprietary documents? C. Copyright 15. Which type of law allows people to use copyrighted material in teaching environments without obtaining the consent of the owner of this material? C. Fair Use Doctrine 16. What says that you may use copyrighted material in certain situations — for example, in the creation of new work or, within certain limits, for teaching purposes? D. Fair Use Doctrine 17. Is copyright infringement illegal? B. Yes, outside of a fair use situation 18. Can you make a copy of software that you buy? D. Only if the software vendor grants you the right to copy it 19. When you purchase copyrighted software, what are you actually paying for? D. The right to use it 20. Which of the following is the unauthorized use, duplication, distribution, or sale of copyrighted software? A. Pirated software 1. What is the technology called that will allow you to take your TV programming with you? C. Sling 2. Which of the following would not be considered a new Internet-based trend or technology? C. Web 1. 0 3. What is software-as-a-service (SaaS)? C. Software that you pay for its use; the more often you use it the more often you pay 4. Which of the following is a delivery model that would enable you to rent software? C. SaaS 5. What type of Internet company provides pay-per-use software? D. Application service provider (ASP) . If you were traveling abroad and needed to use some software that you did not currently have, and did not want to purchase, what type of software could you rent during this trip? D. Application Service Provider (ASP) 7. When you are using a Web-based server to run applications, what issues should you be concerned with? A. Security of your data and personal information from the company; some of these companies will sell this information to a thi rd party 8. What is push technology? C. Information that finds its way automatically to you 9. Which of the following technologies will affect push technology the most? D. Database and data warehouses 10. Which of the following is an e-commerce model in which a consumer communicates through an Internet company with a manufacturer to create customized products? A. F2b2C 11. What is the term used when intermediate business partners in traditional distribution channels are bypassed? C. Disintermediation 12. Which of the following technologies allows you to send voice communications over the Internet and avoid the toll charges traditionally incurred by consumers? C. VoIP 13. What new Web environment features online collaboration, dynamic and customized feeds, and greater control of Web content by users? B. Web 2. 0 14. What type of Web site allows you, as a visitor, to create, edit, change, and delete content? B. Wiki 15. If you were reading an article located on a Web site and were able to update the article based on information that you discovered from your work, what type of Web site would you be working on? A. Wiki 16. What is it called when a business provides enabling technologies to their customers so that they are able to create, modify, and oversee the development of a product or service? C. Crowdsourcing 17. What technology is in the form of a journal in which you post entries in chronological order and often includes the capabilities for other viewers to add comments to your journal entries? C. Blogs 18. What is the difference between a social networking site and a blog? A. Social networking sites create a community of people; blogs keep people informed 19. What technology provides frequently published and updated digital content on the Web? C. RSS feed 20. What term refers to your ability to download audio and video files into a handheld, portable device? D. Podcasting